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From: "Dream Builder" <>
Subject: Re: [ADVANRES] Deed- Date of Sale v. Recording Date
Date: Thu, 8 Jan 2004 07:27:54 -0500
References: <1cc.1751342d.2d2e3023@aol.com>


You don't mention where the land was located, but not all places had daily
access to "officials" to record such things. Someone local kept track of
transactions until the proper authorities came around from larger towns
(several times a year to once a month) to make an "official" record of the
transaction.

In some places, the U.S. government didn't really own the land they were
giving away or selling. 1837 is the year of the Cherokee removal, so if you
are talking about property "owned" prior to that, it's possible that this is
the case. For instance, Georgia purposefully tried to get white people to
settle on Cherokee land, but had no real authority to do so. Once enough
white people had settled, it was easier to remove the Native Americans.

V. Friedman

----- Original Message -----
From: <>
To: <>
Sent: Wednesday, January 07, 2004 11:01 PM
Subject: [ADVANRES] Deed- Date of Sale v. Recording Date


Because I had such a good response with my bounty land question yesterday, I
figured I could ask about a copy of a deed I got a few years ago that has me
pondering why it was recorded years after the land was sold.

The Deed was signed by my ancestor (the grantor) April 30, 1835. The Clerk
also affixes his private seal on that date "there being, as yet no official
seal provided".

My ancestor died in the next five years and I don't when or where and am
sure
hoping to find out one day.

So, I wonder if the fact that the deed was recorded years later on June 24,
1837 might have anything to do with his death date. Or is this just a
matter
of the clerk just getting around to it, and the time lapse has no meaning at
all? I've stared at the two dates but the answer has not popped out.
Please
help.

Thank you.

Diana


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