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Archiver > GEN-MEDIEVAL > 2002-05 > 1021082900


From: Renia <>
Subject: Re: County vs. Shire
Date: Sat, 11 May 2002 03:08:48 +0100
References: <3cdaa8b6.225834580@news.mindspring.com>, <3cdc6625.545887@news.mindspring.com>


I don't think anyone is denying that in old documents and journals the
name of the county (less the -shire) was often (but not always) preceded
by the word county. That would be a ridiculous assertion to make. That
does not make the usage correct today. The affectation of Burke's et all,
is to apply old (legal) jargonese to biographical data.

Renia

Stewart Baldwin wrote:

> To give another example, I have a handful of photocopies from "The
> Gentlemen's Magazine" during the time period 1784-1805, and it is
> common for them to give the residence of somebody as "[name of town],
> co. [name of county]" with examples of "[name of town], _____shire"
> also being present (with more examples of the former than the latter,
> but without any clear indication that one was preferred to the other).
>
> This example should suffice to kill the notion that the first of the
> above forms was an "affectation" picked up by Americans from Burke.
>
> Stewart Baldwin


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