Archiver > GEN-MEDIEVAL > 2002-05 > 1021082900

From: Renia <>
Subject: Re: County vs. Shire
Date: Sat, 11 May 2002 03:08:48 +0100
References: <>, <>

I don't think anyone is denying that in old documents and journals the
name of the county (less the -shire) was often (but not always) preceded
by the word county. That would be a ridiculous assertion to make. That
does not make the usage correct today. The affectation of Burke's et all,
is to apply old (legal) jargonese to biographical data.


Stewart Baldwin wrote:

> To give another example, I have a handful of photocopies from "The
> Gentlemen's Magazine" during the time period 1784-1805, and it is
> common for them to give the residence of somebody as "[name of town],
> co. [name of county]" with examples of "[name of town], _____shire"
> also being present (with more examples of the former than the latter,
> but without any clear indication that one was preferred to the other).
> This example should suffice to kill the notion that the first of the
> above forms was an "affectation" picked up by Americans from Burke.
> Stewart Baldwin

This thread: