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From:
Subject: Re: The text of the agreement between Edward II and Thomas de Multon in 1317
Date: Mon, 29 Jul 2002 16:34:24 EDT


In a message dated 7/29/2002 9:49:44 AM Mountain Daylight Time, Therav3
writes:

<< The language provided from the 1317 document by Dr. Cunningham (via
Robert Todd's post) may or may not be considered a 'formal' betrothal, but by
its having been committed to writing calling it 'informal' is not quite
accurate. >>

In any type of marriage contract, by it's very nature, it was a commitment by
two parties (the parents/guardians of the two children involved) to at some
point marry. That was the whole purpose of a marriage contracts and the
clauses within were structured to help bring that about.

The critical question is not whether the parents entered into an agreement
(parents were not betrothed), but whether that meant the two children at that
time exchanged orally a promise to marry at some point in the future (and
were of an age to do so legally).

Paul


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