GEN-MEDIEVAL-L ArchivesArchiver > GEN-MEDIEVAL > 2004-07 > 1089908541
From: (Jared Linn Olar)
Subject: Re: Jesus
Date: 15 Jul 2004 09:22:21 -0700
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(Francisco Antonio Doria) wrote in message news:<>...
> No, there is no historical evidence; just an
> interpolation in Josephus, IIRR - an obvious one, btw.
On the contrary, apart from the historical evidence provided by the
Gospels, New Testament epistles, and first century A.D. Christian
writings, we also have Suetonius' reference to "Chrestus," Tacitus'
reference to the Christians being named after "Christus" who was
executed by Pontius Pilate, and Josephus' reference to the death of
St. James, "the brother of Jesus, the so-called Christ." As I mention
in another post the interpolation in Josephus, the Testimonium
Flavianum as it is called, very probably existed in an uninterpolated
form. There is more than enough historical evidence for the existence
of a Jewish teacher or "rabbi" named Jesus, who was crucified by
Pontius Pilate, and whose followers became the first members of the
Christian religion. In fact, there is more and better evidence for
the origins of Christianity than there is for any other major religion
of the ancient world.
As for Jesus being an unmarried rabbi, two things: we don't know that
the rule stipulating that rabbis be married even existed in Jesus'
day, but even if it did, Jesus disregarding a tradition that rabbis be
married is certainly in line with His disregarding the traditions
about what constitutes working on the Sabbath, or the traditions of
ceremonial hand-washing. Anyway, in Christian doctrine Jesus WAS
married -- as God Incarnate, He is held to have been mystically
married to Israel through the Sinaitic Covenant uniting God and the
Chosen People. Of course, if you don't believe in the Incarnation, or
don't believe that Jesus saw Himself as God Incarnate, that point
won't be very convincing.
And anyway, this is all far-afield from medieval genealogy.
Jared Linn Olar
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