GENEALOGY-DNA-L Archives

Archiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2005-06 > 1119908192


From: "Ken Nordtvedt" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] Re: SNPs for Haplogroup I
Date: Mon, 27 Jun 2005 15:36:32 -0600
References: <062720050225.7018.42BF63A70009CC7600001B6A2200748184050B989A0E00@comcast.net> <000901c57b22$85c93df0$5a579045@Ken1>


While we are on the topic of SNPs for haplogroup I, an issue of haplogroup
subclade clarification came to mind. I have addressed this question to one
of the academic experts on haplogroup I, but in the meantime I will raise it
for the List; we have a number of good heads here and folks who have
canvassed the literature.

It concerns haplogroup I subclade I1a4 which has been found in small
numbers, but from diverse Eastern Europe locations. It is characterized by
M227+.

The question is why I1a4 could not really be a subclade of I1a1 which is
defined by P40+? The paper by Rootsi et al which really put I1a4 in our
consciousness did not test for P40. It called all I1a haplotypes which were
M227- simply I1a* or I1a.

On the other hand there is the general belief that I1a is almost the same
as I1a1 --- a situation similar to that described in R1b.

If there has never been a M227+ haplotype tested for P40, we don't know if
M227+ is a subclade of P40+ haplotypes. Does anyone know of tests done by
any lab or mentioned in any paper which did this check? If not, then
perhaps some of the M227+ dna which I sent to DNA Heritage ought to be
eventually tested for P40.

A similar question could be raised about I1a2 and I1a3, however so far we do
not know if they are anything but singletons. M227+ is a bonified subclade
in I1a.

Ken







This thread: