GENEALOGY-DNA-L ArchivesArchiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2005-10 > 1130703758
From: charles <>
Subject: Re: [DNA]
Date: Sun, 30 Oct 2005 15:22:38 -0500
Glenn is correct. If it is a direct male line all the way back to the
plantation owner/master, it could provide supporting evidence to an oral
history of such an event. This simple chart may help show how the Y
chromosome is passed down through the all male line since it is the Y
chromosome that determines that the child will be male. The second chart
shows how mtDNA is passed down via the all female direct line. See my
introduction to Genetic Genealogy in the DNA Info page below my
signature for more details and basics regarding using Genetic Genealogy.
Glen Todd wrote:
> Assuming that it were uninterrupted straight male line, quite probably.
> (In other words, it would have to be father's father's father's ..., all the
> way down. Any connection through a mother would break it.) Also, there
> is no absolutely definitive connection between haplogroup and race (an
> example being our ongoing E3b argument). There are some high probability
> associations; if you see a 'black' (over-general term that I don't like)
> male with haplogroup I or R1b - both basically 'white' Western European -
> you might well be able to speculate that such is the case. It is
> speculation, though. You would need to build a better case, such as - as
> in one case that was discussed here a while back - a close genetic match to
> a European family line that was known to be the line of an overseer on the
> plantation where the African ancestor was a slave.
>>Does anyone know if testing a black male to determine if he
>>was a descendant of a white slave owner in the late 1700s
>>of any use. In other words, would European ancestry, in
>>this case from Wales, show up in a present day black
>>male if he were tested for Y-DNA?