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From: "Dora Smith" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] The Celtic Myth - Language spread by trade alone? Uh-huh
Date: Sun, 21 Oct 2007 22:37:33 -0500
References: <65e4272db649561ab6ef5366ba2d5d93@stnectan.demon.co.uk><01c701c813fd$84d71180$640fa8c0@Villandra2><000c01c8143c$1db76290$6501a8c0@Richard>


Several theories of how that happened. I'm having trouble with the notion
that most of Europe spoke a single language in the centuries before Christ,
so it must have been conquest.

I have several ideas who those could have been. It could have been the
Celts, as they colonized Britain in successive waves and had truly mixed it
up by Roman times. I suspect that the earlier waves of Indo-Europeans,
battle axe people and similar entities from exactly the same parts of
western Asia and eastern Europe had something to do with it.

My point is that the trade notion did NOT happen.

I cannot convince people there were Celts, nor Indo-Europeans, if they do
not want to believe it.

R1b does not prevail in the original homeland of the Celts. It prevails
west of that region.

Tell me - how did the British come to speak English? The language did not
originate there. And the people who spoke it were not as heavily R1b1c as
teh people of Britain. Why, even in Scotland and Wales tehy speak
English, and even fewer Angles, Saxons, and Jutes went tehre - or do you
think there were Angles, Saxons and Jutes? All those Saxon artifacts are
just evidence of trade, and their history is just myth - or atleast, it will
be in another thousand years. Maybe teh Venerable Bede made it up! All
that talk about comets and dragons... There is no history. There are no
facts. There is no reality. All is the dreamtime.

Yours,
Dora Smith
Austin, TX


----- Original Message -----
From: "R. Stevens" <>
To: <>
Sent: Sunday, October 21, 2007 6:42 PM
Subject: Re: [DNA] The Celtic Myth - Language spread by trade alone? Uh-huh


>
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
>
> Well, Dora, even though my better judgment - a thing I rarely indulge -
> tells me not to ask . . .
>
> Just who were the original Celts who forced their language and culture on
> those poor, ever-malleable R1b1c "natives"?
>
> Why is it R1b1c prevails throughout the ancient homeland of the Celts, if
> the original Celts were not R1b1c?
>
>
> Rich
>


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