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From: "steven perkins" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] The Celtic Myth - Language spread by trade alone? Uh-huh
Date: Sun, 28 Oct 2007 09:36:27 -0400
References: <007401c818f0$04274800$640fa8c0@Villandra2><784561.73428.qm@web86613.mail.ird.yahoo.com>
In-Reply-To: <784561.73428.qm@web86613.mail.ird.yahoo.com>


Alan:

I thought the Hittite language was considered a Celtic variant. If
so, that would fit with the rise of wheat cultivation in Asia Minor
and the spread of that process westward.

Regards,

Steven C. Perkins


On 10/28/07, Alan R <> wrote:
> The distribution of the Corded Ware culture indicates
> that it had little to do with Celts. It stretched
> from fringes of the old USSR ac cross the Baltic and
> North Sea coast but stopped short of the Rhine and
> Danube where the later Celtic lands begin in ernest.
> Like many cultures it cut across the later lands of
> several linguistic groups. It may have included
> (although not necessarily the origin of)
> proto-Germanic and proto-Baltic speakers judging by
> its distribution but certainly not Celts. Much of the
> area that the corded ware peoples settled soon after
> became a backwater in the Bronze Age due to lack of
> metal resources and was in no position to influence
> and spread a language across Europe.
>
> The tide has very much turned against that theory
> (best expressed in Mallory's great book) on the
> subject and that would now be seen as a real minority
> view. Unfortunately no culture at any stage can be
> pointed to as having a distribution that neatly covers
> all of the Celts. I am guessing but I think Celtic or
> west Indo-European may have spread in three ways:
>
> 1. Arrived as Indo-European in west-central Europe
> (Danube, south/west/central Germany, north/east
> France, Belgium etc with the first farmers of the LBK
> and derived cultures. Whether this included the
> British Isles is very debatable but the main Neolithic
> influence there was LBK derived.
>
> 2. Then spreading further west to the Atlantic areas
> including Iberia, more of France and the British Isles
> (if the latter had not already been made Celtic at the
> start of the Neolithic) as a prestige and trade
> language throughout the 2000 years of the Bronze Age.
>
> 3. much later colonial Iron Age movements into north
> Italy, east-central Europe and beyond.
>
> Only some sort of multi faceted explanation can
> explain the historic distribution of the Celts. No
> single explanation fits except for one very
> controversial possibility. Although it is very much a
> tiny minority view, I am interested in the group who
> follow the Palaeolithic Continuity theory of
> Indo-European origins because the idea that
> R1b=hunter-gathers=Celts would just be so very simple
> and neat.
>
> See http://www.continuitas.com/intro.html
>
>
> Alan
>
>
>
>
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--
Steven C. Perkins
http://stevencperkins.com/
Online Journal of Genetics and Genealogy
http://jgg-online.blogspot.com/
Steven C. Perkins' Genealogy Page
http://stevencperkins.com/genealogy.html


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