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Archiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2008-05 > 1211376628


From: "Elizabeth O'Donoghue" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] S21/S28 Split+m223 stuff
Date: Wed, 21 May 2008 14:30:28 +0100
In-Reply-To: <406502.45495.qm@web86606.mail.ird.yahoo.com>


Alan, why must the concept be a replacement of original inhabitants? In
1600BC, wouldn't the majority of the population already *be* R1b? Why must
there be 'late arriving European Celts' from somewhere else? Why couldn't
the inhabitants of Western Europe be mainly the R1b from the Iberian
refugium mixed with the hg I from further east?

I think it's generally considered that Celtic is a culture, not a race.
Likewise, Urnfield, et al, does not necessarily need to have an outside
invasive source to explain its presence. Could it not evolve from the
indigenous inhabitants, due to perhaps a singular innovative individual who
devised a different way to make an implement, decorate a bowl, etc? (Do you
think they had patents back then?)

While the Hallstadt and La Tene cultures do seem to have eastern influences,
isn't it due to returning Celts from the eastern reaches of their migration?
They weren't really different peoples...

Elizabeth

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