GENEALOGY-DNA-L Archives

Archiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2008-09 > 1222267857


From:
Subject: Re: [DNA] What shall R1b1c call themselves now?
Date: Wed, 24 Sep 2008 10:50:57 EDT


In a message dated 9/23/2008 2:13:47 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
writes:

> ASD is simply twice the variance so the two values are
> very closely related.

Just to clarify how you're using the terms: in ordinary usage, ASD *is*
variance, right? Dienekes made a distinction, depending on whether the differences
are calculated from a hypothetical ancestral allele or not.


http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2008/08/on-effective-mutation-rate-for-y-str.html

But he didn't find a two-fold difference in the results, as per the tables in
the above URL. So how are you using the terms?

I apologize if this question has been addressed before -- I've kind of given
up on following the thread in any detail, so I usually just read the first
sentence or two (where I may have picked your statement out of context).

Ann Turner




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