LITHUANIA-L Archives

Archiver > LITHUANIA > 2003-06 > 1054835926


From: David Zincavage <>
Subject: [LITHUANIA-L] Fw: RE: Kolwzan
Date: Thu, 05 Jun 2003 10:58:54 -0700


----- Original Message -----
From: "Marek Jerzy Minakowski" <>
To: <>
Sent: Thursday, June 05, 2003 9:46 AM
Subject: Re: RE: Kolwzan


> > David, Lithuanian two-part names have no more to do with the boyar
> > social stratum than do old Slavic two-part names. They predate any idea
> > of boyars and are not linked to any aristocracy. In his classic
> > treatise The History of the Lithuanian Language, Zigmas Zinkevicius
> > explains (p.190) (emphasis will be mine):
>
> Is there any genetic difference between Lithuanian and Polish or Greek
> two-part names?
>
> Let's take:
> Aristo-teles ('Perfect-ending')
> Aristo-crates ('Perfect-ruling')
> So-crates ('Him-ruling')
> Aristo-phanes ('Perfect-seen')
> Sopho-cles ('Wisely-famous')
> Hera-cles ('of Hera - famous')
>
> consider that e.g. Greek -cle:s ending is historically identical with
> Slawic '-slaw' (e.g. in Stani-slaw).
>
> Isn't it just an ordinary Indoeuropean form?
>
> MJM
>
>

This thread: