Y-DNA-HAPLOGROUP-I-L Archives

Archiver > Y-DNA-HAPLOGROUP-I > 2006-05 > 1147586418


From: "Aaron Hill" <>
Subject: RE: Oxford Ancestors Links
Date: Sun, 14 May 2006 06:00:18 +0000


Posted: Thu Jan 19, 2006 3:10 pm

I cannot quite understand why Rootsie et al. conclude that I1a should have developed in Southern France/Northern Spain. The places in the southwest of Europe where I1a is found in any noticeable quantities could be explained by the later migrations of Goths (e.g. Toulouse, Carcassone, Spain), Normans (Normandy), and Vikings (e.g. the Atlantic coast and France), all from Scandinavia originally.

How about a scenario where all haplogroup I took refuge in the Balkans during the last ice age, and then afterwards some went from there to Scandinavia to (re)settle Scandinavia. Looking at the distribution of I1a, it seems logical that this mutation marker should have occurred in Norway/Sweden. Why not so - there is surely enough time for it to have happened there.

I1b then developed among those haplogroup I who stayed in the Balkans and did not venture (back) North.

Anyway, I see no reason to suggest that I1a developed among haplogroup I who 'wintered' in France/Spain. All I could have 'wintered' together in the Balkans and then the split between I1a and I1b could have happened later, when only part of them went north to Scandinavia after the ice age (probably following the migration of animals they hunted), whereas others stayed behind in the Balkans area.

Please comment if anyone can explain why it should not be so.

Jesper
_________________________________________________________________
Join the next generation of Hotmail and you could win the adventure of a lifetime
http://www.imagine-msn.com/minisites/sweepstakes/mail/register.aspx

This thread: